Pre-Final Question Review BIO 240

Review Materials for Upcoming Quizzes. ALL questions will be multiple choice.

The below material will be divided into 2 quizzes. Email me if there are any problems.

Digestive System Review

1
The main functions of the digestive system are
A)
ingestion and digestion
B)
propulsion and secretion
C)
absorption and elimination
D)
all of the above

2
The movement of digestion products, electrolytes, vitamins, and water across the GI tract epithelium and into the underlying blood and lymphatic vessels is called
A)
ingestion
B)
absorption
C)
digestion
D)
secretion

3
All of the following are organs of the digestive system except the
A)
spleen
B)
liver
C)
tongue
D)
esophagus

4
Which selection includes only accessory digestive organs?
A)
salivary glands, thyroid gland, pancreas, liver
B)
stomach, duodenum, pancreas, gallbladder
C)
gallbladder, liver, pancreas, salivary glands
D)
liver, thyroid gland, gallbladder, spleen

5
Movements in the small intestine that churn the materials being digested and mix them with intestinal secretions are called
A)
peristalsis
B)
pendular motility
C)
segmentation
D)
haustral churning

6
Which term describes the wave of muscular contraction that moves material through the GI tract toward the anus?
A)
peristalsis
B)
pendular motility
C)
segmentation
D)
haustral churning

7
Digestive functions of the tongue include
A)
manipulating and mixing ingested materials during chewing
B)
helping compress partially digested food to form a bolus
C)
assisting in the swallowing process
D)
all of the above

8
The three pairs of multicellular salivary glands that secrete into the oral cavity are the ____________ glands.
A)
alpha, beta, and gamma
B)
parotid, submandibular, and sublingual
C)
palatine, lingual, and pharyngeal
D)
serous, mucous, and mixed

9
What is the mineralized matrix, similar to bone but harder, that forms the primary mass of each tooth?
A)
enamel
B)
dentin
C)
cementum
D)
pulp

10
Which selection doesnot correctly pair a type of tooth with its description?
A)
incisors, one or two roots and spoon-shaped
B)
canines, one root and conical with a pointed tip
C)
premolars, one or two roots and flat crowns with cusps
D)
molars, three or more roots and large, broad, flat crowns

11
Which mesentery covers most of the abdominal organs, extending inferiorly like an apron from the greater curvature of the stomach?
A)
mesentery proper
B)
lesser omentum
C)
greater omentum
D)
mesocolon

12
From deep to superficial, what are the tunics of the intraperitoneal portions of the GI tract?
A)
serosa, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa
B)
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and serosa
C)
adventitia, muscularis, submucosa, and mucosa
D)
mucosa, submucosa, muscularis, and adventitia

13
In which of the following selections are the GI tract organs or regions correctly matched with the type of epithelium that lines them?
A)
oral cavity and esophagus; stratified cuboidal
B)
stomach and small intestine; stratified squamous
C)
cecum, colon, and rectum; simple columnar
D)
all of the above

14
Within the mucous membrane of the GI tract, the layer of areolar connective tissue is called the
A)
mucosal lining
B)
lamina propria
C)
muscularis mucosae
D)
submucosa

15
Which tunic of the GI tract typically contains an inner circular layer and an outer longitudinal layer, with the myenteric nerve plexus in between?
A)
muscularis
B)
mucosa
C)
submucosa
D)
adventitia

16
The esophagus enters the abdominal cavity through an opening in the diaphragm, the ____________, before it connects to the stomach.
A)
diaphragmatic foramen
B)
thoracic canal
C)
cardiac orifice
D)
esophageal hiatus

17
Histological features of the esophageal wall include
A)
a mucosa lined with stratified cuboidal epithelium
B)
submucosal glands that produce a thin, watery fluid
C)
a single layer of skeletal muscle in the muscularis
D)
an outer fibrous layer, the adventitia, with no serosa

18
What are the three phases of the swallowing process?
A)
mastication, eruption, and dentition
B)
oral, cranial, and pharyngeal
C)
voluntary, pharyngeal, and esophageal
D)
cardiac, gastric, and pyloric

19
Which digestive organ mechanically and chemically transforms a food bolus into chyme?
A)
esophagus
B)
stomach
C)
small intestine
D)
large intestine

20
Which list proceeds from the superior to the inferior end of the stomach?
A)
pylorus, fundus, cardia, body
B)
cardia, body, fundus, pylorus
C)
cardia, fundus, body, pylorus
D)
body, cardia, pylorus, fundus

21
The prominent folds of the mucosa that nearly disappear when the stomach expands are the
A)
gastric pits
B)
rugae
C)
plicae
D)
omenta

22
From the superior end downward, the three segments of the small intestine are the
A)
ileum, duodenum, and jejunum
B)
duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
C)
jejunum, ileum, and duodenum
D)
duodenum, ileum, and jejunum

23
What is the function of the villi in the small intestine?
A)
to decrease the amount of exposed surface
B)
to facilitate enzyme retention and dispersal
C)
to increase the surface area for absorption and secretion
D)
to sweep particles across the surface with wavelike actions

24
Which sequence lists the regions of the large intestine in order, from the end of the ileum to the anus?
A)
cecum, rectum, anal canal, colon
B)
colon, rectum, anal canal, cecum
C)
cecum, colon, rectum, anal canal
D)
colon, cecum, rectum, anal canal

25
Arrange the segments of the colon in the sequence through which digested material passes prior to defecation: (1) sigmoid (2) transverse (3) descending (4) ascending
A)
4, 2, 3, 1
B)
2, 1, 4, 3
C)
1, 3, 4, 2
D)
3, 1, 2, 4

26
The mucosa of the large intestine is characterized by
A)
lack of intestinal villi
B)
numerous goblet cells and intestinal glands
C)
many lymphatic nodules and cells in the lamina propria
D)
all of the above

27
Production of bile is one of several important functions of the
A)
gallbladder
B)
liver
C)
pancreas
D)
small intestine

28
Bile is stored and concentrated in the
A)
gallbladder
B)
liver
C)
biliary apparatus
D)
duodenum

29
Which hormones stimulate the production of pancreatic juice and bicarbonate?
A)
angiotensin and epinephrine
B)
gastrin and insulin
C)
cholecystokinin and secretin
D)
insulin and glucagon

30
Age-related changes in the digestive system include which of the following?
A)
reduced secretion of mucin, enzymes, and acid
B)
decreased replacement of epithelial cells
C)
diminished muscular tone and GI tract motility
D)
all of the above

Reproduction System Review

1. In mammals that are seasonal breeders, females are receptive only once a year. This is called
A) a follicular cycle B) an estrous cycle
C) a menstrual cycle D) a luteal cycle

2. After sperm are produced, they are delivered first to the
A) vas deferens B) urethra
C) epididymis D) seminal vesicle

3. Which of the following animals has an amniotic egg?
A) a frog B) a sea turtle C) a fish
D) all of the above E) none of the above

4. Progesterone is produced by the
A) corpus luteum B) hypothalamus
C) seminiferous tubules D) pituitary gland E) oviduct

5. Ovulation is caused by the hormone
A) FSH B) progesterone C) oxytocin
D) estrogen E) LH

6. How many chromosomes does a normal, mature, human sperm cell contain?
A) 1B) 2 C) 23 D) 46

7. What is the name of the vesicle at the tip of a sperm cell
that contains enzymes that will help the sperm cell penetrate an egg cell it encounters?
A) scrotum B) amnion C) chorion
D) Sertoli cell E) acrosome

8. During the excitement phase of intercourse, what makes the human penis enlarge and become rigid?
A) blood B) semen
C) bone D) contracted muscles

9. Which of the following is the largest in size?
A) mature sperm cell B) mature egg cell
C) polar body D) they are all approximately the same size

10. The lining or inner layer of the uterus is called the
A) cervix B) vagina C) labia
D) endometrium E) epididymis

11. Which of the following forms of birth control does not prevent conception (fertilization)?
A) an IUD B) a condom
C) a diaphragm D) a vasectomy
E) all of the above do prevent conception

12. Which of the following is the most reliable form of birth
control?
A) the rhythm method B) a douche
C) birth control pills D) coitus interruptus
E) they are all equally reliable

13. What structure is cut and tied off in a vasectomy?
A) the penis B) the epididymis
C) the urethra D) the seminiferous tubules
E) the vas deferens

14. Vasectomies and tubal ligations make the person
A) sterile
B) unable to produce sex hormones
C) lose their sex drive
D) all of the above
E) none of the above

15. Testosterone is produced by the
A) seminiferous tubules B) germinal epithelium
C) SRY cells D) Sertoli cells

16. The majority of the semen is produced by the
A) seminal vesicles B) prostate gland
C) bulbourethral gland D) seminiferous tubules
E) they all contribute equally

17. In humans, fertilization of an egg normally takes place when the sperm and egg unite in the:
A) vagina B) uterus
C) fallopian tube D) ovary
E) All of the above are possible locations for fertilization.

18. The corpus luteum produces _______________ , which inhibits ovulation.
A) LH B) FSH C) estrogen
D) progesterone E) prolactin

19. Approximately two-thirds of the male ejaculate is produced and secreted by the:
A) prostate gland. B) bulbourethral gland.
C) testes and epididymis. D) Cowper’s gland.
E) seminal vesicles.

20. Shortly before menstruation:
A) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone decrease.
B) blood levels of estrogen and progesterone increase.
C) blood levels of FSH stabilize.
D) the corpus luteum secretes progesterone.
E) none of the above occur.

21. The expulsion of seminal fluid from the male urethra into the female vagina is called fertilization.
A) True B) False

22. In mammalian males, the reproductive and excretory systems share the same urethra.
A) True B) False

23. The adaptation of the amniotic egg by reptiles and birds had little impact on their ability to survive a terrestrial environment.
A) True B) False

24: Which of the following is true regarding the male reproductive system?
A: Sperm are produced in the vas deferens B: The bulk of the ejaculate is produced by the sex accessory glands C: Sperm cells are diploid D: The scrotum keeps the testes warmer, thus helping to promote sperm production

25: During embryonic development, the testes form
A: in the scrotum B: inguinal canal C: in the thoracic cavity D: in the abdominal cavity

26: The duct that transports the sperm into the urethra
A: vas deferens B: epididymal duct
C: ureter D: None of the above

27: Semen
A: is produced primarily by the testes B: contains the sugar glucose which nourishes the sperm C: contains prostaglandin which causes muscles of the uterus contract, thus helping sperm move up the female reproductive tract D: None of the above

28: Which of the following is not true?
A: Sperm are produced in the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules B: The formation of sperm is known as spermiogenesis C: Sperm are derived from spermatogonia is the germinal epithelium D: The second meiotic produces four spermatids

29: The acrosome
A: is produced from the mitochondria of the spermatid B: is produced from the nucleus of the spermatid C: is produced from the rough endoplasmic reticulum D: None of the above

30: The average 3-milliliter ejaculate contains
A: 10 million sperm
B: 50 million sperm C: 120 million sperm D: 240 million sperm

31: Interstitial cells
A: produce the hormone progesterone B: are located in the seminiferous tubules C: give rise to spermatids during sperm formation D: Interstitial cells produce the hormone progesterone are located in the seminiferous tubules give rise to spermatids during sperm formation

32: The hormone testosterone
A: stimulates cell growth in bone and muscle B: is a protein hormone that causes the vocal cords to thicken C: decreases activity in the sebaceous glands D: is not present in women

33: Which of the following is not true?
A: The enlarged tip of the penis is called the glans penis B: Removal of the foreskin is known as circumcision C: The inability to achieve an erection in known as impotence D: None of the above

34: In the female reproductive system, sperm follow the following route
A: Vagina, cervical canal, Fallopian tube, uterus B: Vagina, Fallopian tube, cervical canal, uterus C: Vagina, cervical canal, uterus, Fallopian tube D: None of the above

35: Which of the following is correct?
A: In humans, sperm are directly deposited in the uterus B: The cervix is part of the uterus C: The lining of the uterus is called the myometrium D: The inner folds of the external genitalia are known as the labia majora

36: The clitoris is derived from the same embryonic tissue as the
A: penis B: scrotum C: testes D: prostate

37: Which of the following is true regarding ovulation?
A: It is the name given to the process of gamete formation in women B: It occurs at the beginning of each menstrual cycle C: It begins at puberty and usually ends after a woman’s first birth D: Is the name given to the release of ova or eggs from the ovaries

38: During the production of ova
A: the oogonia divide mitotically B: oogonia divide to produce four eggs C: the female germ cell undergoes two divisions producing an ovum and two polar bodies D: the final meiotic division occurs just prior to fertilization

39: During the menstrual cycle,
A: the hormone LH stimulates estrogen production by follicles B: the endometrium thickens in preparation for implantation C: FSH stimulates growth of the ovarian follicles D: the hormone LH stimulates the formation of a corpus luteum from the collapsed follicle. E: All of the above

40: The periodic shedding of the endometrium is known as
A: ovulation B: oogenesis C: the secretory phase D: menstruation

Eye and Ear Review

1
A sensory receptor capable of detecting changes in hydrogen ion concentration is more accurately described as a ______________.
A)
thermoreceptor
B)
pain receptor
C)
mechanoreceptor
D)
chemoreceptor

2
Heavy pressure and vibrations stimulate ________________.
A)
proprioceptors
B)
baroreceptors
C)
Meissner’s corpuscles
D)
Pacinian corpuscles

3
Choose the statement about the sense of pain that is correct.
A)
Pain receptors are among many types of receptors in the viscera that produce sensations.
B)
A phenomenon known as referred pain can be explained because of common nerve pathways used by both the skin and internal organs.
C)
Acute pain fibers are never myelinated.
D)
Chronic pain fibers stop sending signals as soon as the stimulus ceases.

4
What type of somatic receptor lies within tendons close to the point of attachment to muscles and is stimulated by increased muscular tension?
A)
Golgi tendon organ
B)
muscle spindle
C)
free nerve ending
D)
Meissners corpuscle

5
Which of these statements about the sense of smell is not true?
A)
Olfactory receptor cells are bipolar neurons that are not replaced when damaged.
B)
Chemicals are received by specific plasma membrane receptors in the olfactory receptor cells.
C)
Olfactory receptors do not adapt quickly.
D)
The main areas of the brain that interpret the sense of smell lie in the temporal and frontal lobes.

6
The portion(s) of the tongue that actually perceives taste is/are the _____________.
A)
taste hairs
B)
papillae
C)
epithelium of tongue
D)
taste buds

7
How do the senses of smell and taste differ?
A)
They differ in the types of receptors they employ.
B)
They differ in the reproductive rate of the receptors.
C)
They differ in their rate of sensory adaptation.
D)
They do not both employ cilia or hair-like extension of their receptor cells.

8
Why do odors sometimes alter our moods?
A)
Because sensory input from olfaction is routed through the limbic system.
B)
Because odors act as neurotransmitters and alter brain chemistry.
C)
Because odors are satisfying to our sense of hunger.
D)
Odors do not alter mood.

9
Loss of the sensation of taste is referred to as _____________.
A)
dysosmia
B)
ageusia
C)
hypogeusia
D)
asnosmia

10
The chamber that actually houses the hearing receptors is the __________________.
A)
vestibule
B)
semicircular canal
C)
scala tympani
D)
cochlear duct

11
After the inner ear has detected vibrations caused by sound, how is the energy dissipated?
A)
perilymph inside the scala tympani absorbs the sound wave energy
B)
endolymph inside the cochlear duct absorbs sound wave energy
C)
air inside the middle ear dissipates the forces caused by vibrations.
D)
perilymph inside the scala vestibuli absorbs sound wave energy

12
The organs of static equilibrium are located within the ______________ and employ shifting ___________ to set up nerve impulses.
A)
semicircular canals; gelatinous material
B)
vestibule; otoliths
C)
cochlea; fluid
D)
vestibule; crista ampullaris

13
The inner surface of the eyelids is lined with ______________.
A)
conjunctiva
B)
extrinsic eye muscles
C)
dense connective tissue
D)
lacrimal apparatus

14
The region on the retina that produces the sharpest vision is called the _______________.
A)
sclera
B)
aqueous humor
C)
fovea centralis
D)
optic disk

15
Objects are perceived by photoreceptors because the rods or cones _______________ as their _________________ in the presence of light.
A)
depolarize; pigments are manufactured
B)
hyperpolarize; pigments decompose
C)
repolarize; pigments remain unchanged
D)
depolarize; pigments decompose

16
The ability to sense body position is related to _____ receptors.
A)
general
B)
pain
C)
pressure
D)
proprioceptors

17
The area of the brain that integrates proprioceptor data is the _________.
A)
cerebrum
B)
hypothalamus
C)
cerebellum
D)
medulla oblongata

18
Most olfactory receptors are located on the ______ surface of the nasal cavity.
A)
superior
B)
inferior
C)
lateral
D)
medial

19
Which muscle moves the eye toward the midline?
A)
superior oblique
B)
inferior oblique
C)
medial rectus
D)
lateral rectus

20
Which extrinsic eye muscle rotates the eyes clockwise?
A)
inferior oblique
B)
superior oblique
C)
lateral rectus
D)
medial rectus

21
Which cranial nerve does not innervate eye muscles?
A)
III
B)
trochlear
C)
abducens
D)
II

22
The _____ is a membrane covering the anterior portion of the eyeball except for the cornea.
A)
cornea
B)
conjunctiva
C)
sclera
D)
eyelid

23
Which of these is the last in the tear flow sequence?
A)
lacrimal duct
B)
nasolacrimal duct
C)
lacrimal gland
D)
lacrimal sac

24
The actual receptors for hearing and balance are _______.
A)
chemoreceptors
B)
otoliths
C)
cochlear cells
D)
hair cells

25
The auditory canal is part of the _____.
A)
inner ear
B)
middle ear
C)
outer ear
D)
pinna

26
Which is the last structure to vibrate in this sequence?
A)
malleus
B)
oval window
C)
stapes
D)
incus


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